PS: Defense is constantly denying Murray used the drip that night. But as Dr. Steinberg pointed out on page 39 of Murray's interview with the police , lines 21 and 22, Murray is correcting the detective about the "same dose" but not about the drip. (Page 62, mentioned by the other doctor talks in general, not that night; page 39 refers to that night specifically).
I'm confused. Wasn't there something mentioned back in 2009 or last year that there was a drip used and wasn't it claimed that Michael messed with the drip to get himself more propofol and that was the propofol dose that killed him? If so, how do the defense now say that there was no drip used that night or morning? I don't understand it.