Use of anethesia/propofol

Question..

Does anyone know if the patient has to sign some kind of consent form authorizing anesthesia when they are put under? I'm just asking because it doesn't seem like Murray had MJ sign anything and it also doesn't appear that Murray was even covered to give anyone general anesthesia. Doesn't a doctor supposed to have some kind of consent or coverage to give someone anesthesia?

Yes, when you are at hospital and you are being prepared for surgery, you sign the consent in which you agree on all medical procedures including all kind of anesthesia. There are different kinds of anesthesia and you usually have the choice. I always signed the consent, which was the peace of legal form with specified kinds of treatments, procedures, medicines, anesthesia...etc. This always included the clause, that you have been informed about the risk of all the procedures...

Anyway, this is the obligation of signing the consent, when you are treated at the hospital. When it comes to anesthesia, this should be common no matter whether you get it at hospital or at home, but this is only my assumption..

As far as the obligation of the coverage to give someone anesthesia, I'm not sure of...Maybe this depends on the established law in particular country, or like in this case, of the law of the State,,,

thanks for that..

You are welcome...
I'm not sure if this helps...I've never heard before about giving anesthesia at home...I don't even know, whether there are some regulations in such the particular situations..Maybe the regulations are tied to the procedure of giving anesthesia, no matter in which place...?
I'm still wondering whether Murray broke the law, or not...So far, anybody made no mention of Murray's breaking the law , but only of his negligence and recklessness,,,

so before we open a new can of worms it must be the country law:yes:

What this man did was so far beyond anything one could even imagine.

It was not legitimate medicine, there are no standards of care that he broke because none exist because , wait for it...it was not legitimate medicine.

So while your question is valid for a hospital, dental office or certain clinics where use of anesthetics of any kind are employed legally and appropriately, there is no conceivable justification for using a general anesthetic in a home setting. Ergo a consent form would be meaningless.

As far as Murray breaking the law in regards to giving general anesthetic at home, simply put, doctors are held to certain standards of practice and care and are obligated to not do things for which they are not trained. Laws do not govern medical decisions, doctors do. It is up to the practitioner to judge what is best for his patient. There are no standards covering the administration of general anesthesia at home because it is something that is not done.
Propofol was not a controlled substance, legally limited to use in certain settings. It does say it should be administered by trained professionals but that is not a law. So, no, in that sense, there was no law broken in using in in the home. I mean it was such an unimaginable thing to do!

Murray knew what he was doing was wrong.. Like the DA said hiding bottles and not revealing what he administered was conscienceness of guilt.. Murray would've never given anyone else propofol at home in a bedroom and he knows it. It's just something you don't do and he being a medical professional knows that.

In Germany you have to sign that you recieved a proper talk about the risk for the use of any aneasthetisia that is used in a hospital setting during an operation.
I had to sign for myself and for my son for this once.

I think that is fairly standard in most countries. Thing is, this wasn't a hospital setting and all bets are off. Even if murray had obtained Michael's signature on a piece of paper, it would mean bubkus, nothing, niente, nada, squat except to give written verification that murray was counselling (ha!) something that should not have been done. At. all.

Come to think of it, maybe that wouldn't have been a bad thing.

If someone can answer me, please....how does someone feels after waking up from propofol ? How long it works ?
Does it not make you grogy ?

im sorry but i went under like 8 times, i never signed anything, im living in holland. But what i know is that even with 30 min under *for me* that you feel it like 24 hours later.. @zpredra5

What i was wondering if you have lost weight *like michael did the last weeks* would the side effect of the propofol be stronger? Because your system has the adabt to the weight change so your support system is a little less.. maybe the propofol has than more dangerous side effects.. like resp. distress... which is no big deal in a hospital with all the equipment..

just wondering?