Cheers cookie. so everything hes claiming seems to be a load of b.s
Could someone please explain what ion trapping is? the defense seems to find this important and I can't understand what it is. Does it relate to bleeding into the stomach and how propopofol was found in mj's stomach?
Thanks in advance
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The term ion trapping is used to describe the build-up of a higher concentration of a chemical across a cell membrane due to the pKa value of the chemical and difference of pH across the cell membrane. Generally speaking, this results in basic chemicals accumulating in acidic bodily fluids such as the cytosol, and acidic chemicals accumulating in basic fluids such as mastitic milk.
In my mind a mental addiction is still an addiction, however murray would not need to wean him off if there is no physical addiction. I guess that article throws out the therory that you can't inject yourself with it either.
from wiki:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ion_trapping
the pKa of lorazepam in an acid environment(?) is reported as 11.5 -13:
http://web.squ.edu.om/med-Lib/MED_CD/E_CDs/A Practical Guide to Contemporary Pharmacy Practice/pdf/pKa-table.pdf
http://www.drugbank.ca/drugs/DB00186
This implies lorazepam concentrations would build up in the stomach (because it's acidic). The lorazepam concentration there could get higher than of the surrounding tissue.
- could someone confirm this please. lorazepam has actually two different pKas. From what i get, the 11.5 -13 value is the one referring to an acidic environment. its pKa value for bases is 1.3.
the autopsy report says there was transmural bleeding of the stomach. this is how the blood (with the lorazepam) would get into the stomach in the first place.
With propofol, it isn't proper 'sleep' which is why most medics are appalled that Murray was using it for this purpose let alone all the risks involved. I'm not sure exactly what kind of sleep it is, but I doubt it would be REM sleep.
He shouldn't snore. I found that quite alarming when he said that. It means that Michael's airway was being partially obstructed. He would still be able to breathe but because of the sedation, his airway was not being well protected. In that instance something should be done to rectify it but Murray took it to mean that it was reassuring cos he was in deep sleep
Could someone please explain what is femoral blood? I was sure of my translation but now I'm starting to think I didn't tranlsate it correctly. where is it in the body? blood from where?
Thanks in advance
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There are 2 femoral arteries, one each in the rt and lt groin areas between the aorta and upper portion of the lower extremities. They are usually very readily palpated when the heart is beating, and I would assume one of the largest targets one could blindly access even if there is no heart beat. Hope that helps, and Google has many vasculature anatomy links that can visually show the femoral arteries and their location/relationship to other human vasculature.
Definition of FEMORAL is of or relating to the femur or thigh. So blood taken from the upper leg, the thigh.
The blood is preferably taken from the femoral veins.
I hope that this helps and makes sense now x
The paramedic report states that at 12.33 MJ's heart was in PEA (pulseless electrical activity). It is written on the form as 'Pea'.
http://lady-medic.blogspot.com/2010/...reportpcr.html
So, how long does a patient have to be down, for PEA to appear?
Something I find odd. The witness yesterday (toxicologist Anderson) testified that 3x 400ml containers of urine were drained from MJ's bladder (so a total of 1200 mls) at time of autopsy.
1. If MJ was being treated for "dehydration", he surely was well hydrated on the day of his death for if someone was dehydrated, no way they'd produce that much urine.
2. When someone dies, my understanding is that the muscles in the body relax and their bladder would spontaneously empty. How was it that his bladder remained full of SO much urine?
I looked at the autopsy report, anesthesiology consult, Dr Calmes talks about the risks of propofol, she mentionned "respiratory depression" and "cardiovascular depression" and it sounded like 2 different things sometimes, not necesarily linked, and she mentions that a bolus injection should not be too fast.
So my question is : what is a cardiovascular depression, how fast can it be, can propofol send you directly into cardiac arrest , without a respiratory depression first ??
Why shouldn't the bolus injection be too fast ?
thanks
i just posted a partial answer in the day 15 thread, sorry i didnt see it here i could move it here if you'd like? am i allowed to answer a question in here, i don't really think i'm a medical "expert"? i am a 2nd year medical student, but the info i got was from an anesthesiology textbook...
of course you can answer a question here
+ in addition to information from text book can you also simplify it for us - that can't understand medical terminology?
Propofol attenuates the heart rate response to atropine in a dose-dependent manner.
thanks for all your answers. I have this:
1. which one is better to use ambu bag or mouth-to-mouth ?
2. please clear is it possible to be addicted to propofol or not ?
3. is it possible to self inject propofol ? from what i read and watched it should be given slowly not at one shot. So could it works as a one shot ?
4. How it's possible the pipe (not sure how it's called) that connect the IV system with needle is without propofol tracks ? (at least the detective said so , after testing the is no signs of propofol on it, but full propofol bottle was into the bag) please clear this testimony.
THANK YOU!